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Why is Socrates not satisfied with defining piety as what all the gods love?

Why is Socrates not satisfied with defining piety as what all the gods love?

Socrates is not satisfied with this definition because it does not address a fundamental question: it does not explain why things are pious or not pious—it says everything is pious is something loved by all the gods, but it doesn’t answer question of what MAKES something pious or what the essence of being pious is…

Why do Socrates and euthyphro reject the definition of piety as what all the gods love what assumptions do they make?

Socrates rejects Euthyphro’s action, because it is not a definition of piety, and is only an example of piety, and does not provide the essential characteristic that makes pious actions pious. Euthyphro’s second definition: Piety is what is pleasing to the gods/ what is approved by the gods.

How does Euthyphro attempt to define piety and how does Socrates show that these definitions are insufficient?

Euthyphro tries to do this five times, and each time Socrates argues that the definition is inadequate. 1st Definition: Piety is what Euthyphro is doing now, namely prosecuting wrongdoers. 2nd Definition: Piety is what is loved by the gods (“dear to the gods” in some translations); impiety is what is hated by the gods.

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Does Socrates really believe Euthyphro is wise about the nature of piety?

Socrates does not really believe that Euthyphro is wise about the nature of piety. In the Dialogue, the word pious refers to something loved by the gods. As Socrates points out, this definition doesn’t clarify whether or not the thing in question must be loved by all or some of the gods.

Why does Socrates disagree with Euthyphro?

Because he felt quite sure that the Athenian people in general did not understand the real nature of either piety or impiety, Socrates asks Euthyphro to answer the question “What is piety?” He has a real purpose in doing this, for Euthyphro, a Sophist, professes to be wise concerning such matters, while Socrates.

What definitions of piety do Socrates and Euthyphro present and discuss?

1st Definition: Piety is what Euthyphro is doing now, namely prosecuting wrongdoers. On this definition, these things will be both pious and impious, which makes no sense. 3rd Definition: Piety is what is loved by all the gods. Impiety is what all the gods hate.

How does Socrates define piety?

Euthyphro’s second definition: Piety is what is pleasing to the gods. (6e–7a) Socrates applauds this definition, because it is expressed in a general form, but criticizes it saying that the gods disagree among themselves as to what is pleasing.

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What problems does Socrates identify with Euthyphro’s definitions of piety?

2nd Definition: Piety is what is loved by the gods (“dear to the gods” in some translations); impiety is what is hated by the gods. Socrates’ Objection: According to Euthyphro, the gods sometimes disagree among themselves about questions of justice. So some things are loved by some gods and hated by others.

What do the gods disagree about in Euthyphro?

Socrates’ Objection: According to Euthyphro, the gods sometimes disagree among themselves about questions of justice. So some things are loved by some gods and hated by others. On this definition, these things will be both pious and impious, which makes no sense. Impiety is what all the gods hate.

What are the definitions of piety Socrates proposes to Euthyphro?

Euthyphro then proposes a fifth definition: “Piety is an art of sacrifice and prayer”. He proposes the notion of piety as a form of knowledge, of how to do exchange: Giving gifts to the gods, and asking favours in return.

How did Euthyphro define piety?

Definition 1 – Euthyphro. Piety is what the Gods love and Impiety is what the Gods hate. Objections to Definition 1. There are many Gods, whom all may not agree on what particular things are pious or impious. It therefore means that certain acts or deeds could therefore be considered both pious and impious.

When Euthyphro suggests that piety is what the gods love?

Euthyphro effectively claims that acts are pious because the gods love them but that the gods love them because they are pious—which amounts to saying that acts are pious because they are pious, and that is no explanation at all. 1.

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What is piety according to Euthyphro?

Euthyphro & Socrates. The first definition that Euthyphro provides to Socrates is that “the pious is to do what I am doing now to prosecute the wrong doer” (Plato, Euthyphro, Grube trans., p. 9). This is merely an example of piety, and Socrates is seeking a definition, not one or two pious actions.

What does Socrates mean by piety according to Plato?

The first definition that Euthyphro provides to Socrates is that “the pious is to do what I am doing now to prosecute the wrongdoer” (Plato, Euthyphro, Grube trans., p. 9). This is merely an example of piety, and Socrates is seeking a definition, not one or two pious actions.

What is Socrates’ objection to Euthyphro’s theory?

Socrates’ Objection : According to Euthyphro, the gods sometimes disagree among themselves about questions of justice. So some things are loved by some gods and hated by others. On this definition, these things will be both pious and impious, which makes no sense. 3rd Definition: Piety is what is loved by all the gods.

What does Euthyphro mean by the term “godly”?

The third definition that Euthyphro states is that “The godly and the pious is a part of the just that is the care of the gods, while that concerned with the care of men is the remaining part of justice” (Loc. cit., 12e, p. 18). Euthyphro believes that for man to be pious to the gods he must learn to do what is pleasing to the gods.